Nlm



  • 20200614_004611.jpg
    How can W by kinetic frictional force be zero or +ve ?



  • @Siddhartha-Ghosh Suppose a man take a drift on a plane which is on frictionless surface , but plane have enough friction to make man a drift, so , when he take a drift there is a frictional force acting in backward direction on shoes of man(by plane) , and as frictional force always come in pair there is also a frictional force acting in forward direction (by shoes) this frictional force move the plane in forward direction at some extent and this is where work done by kinetic friction is positive as friction and movement of plane are in same direction.


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